If the E^{0} values for Mg^{+2} | Mg,Zn^{+2} | vedclass

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Question

(D) The standard reduction potentials are given as: $E^{0}_{Mg^{+2}/Mg} = -2.37 \ V$,$E^{0}_{Zn^{+2}/Zn} = -0.76 \ V$,and $E^{0}_{Fe^{+2}/Fe} = -0.44

Vedclass · Accepted Answer

$Zn$ reduces $Fe^{+2}$.

Vedclass · Answer

(D) The standard reduction potentials are given as: $E^{0}_{Mg^{+2}/Mg} = -2.37 \ V$,$E^{0}_{Zn^{+2}/Zn} = -0.76 \ V$,and $E^{0}_{Fe^{+2}/Fe} = -0.44 \ V$. $A$ metal with a more negative reduction potential acts as a stronger reducing agent. Comparing the values,$Mg$ is the strongest reducing agent,followed by $Zn$,and then $Fe$. $A$ stronger reducing agent can reduce the ion of a metal with a higher (more positive) reduction potential. Since $E^{0}_{Zn^{+2}/Zn} (-0.76 \ V) < E^{0}_{Fe^{+2}/Fe} (-0.44 \ V)$,$Zn$ can reduce $Fe^{+2}$ to $Fe$.

If the $E^{0}$ values for $Mg^{+2} | Mg$,$Zn^{+2} | Zn$,and $Fe^{+2} | Fe$ are $-2.37 \ V$,$-0.76 \ V$,and $-0.44 \ V$ respectively,which statement is correct?

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