If $A = \begin{bmatrix} 0 & -\tan \frac{\alpha}{2} \\ \tan \frac{\alpha}{2} & 0 \end{bmatrix}$ and $I$ is the identity matrix of order $2$,show that $I+A = (I-A) \begin{bmatrix} \cos \alpha & -\sin \alpha \\ \sin \alpha & \cos \alpha \end{bmatrix}$.

Vedclass pdf generator app on play store
Vedclass iOS app on app store
$L.H.S. = I+A = \begin{bmatrix} 1 & 0 \\ 0 & 1 \end{bmatrix} + \begin{bmatrix} 0 & -\tan \frac{\alpha}{2} \\ \tan \frac{\alpha}{2} & 0 \end{bmatrix} = \begin{bmatrix} 1 & -\tan \frac{\alpha}{2} \\ \tan \frac{\alpha}{2} & 1 \end{bmatrix} \quad \dots (1)$
$R.H.S. = (I-A) \begin{bmatrix} \cos \alpha & -\sin \alpha \\ \sin \alpha & \cos \alpha \end{bmatrix}$
$= \left( \begin{bmatrix} 1 & 0 \\ 0 & 1 \end{bmatrix} - \begin{bmatrix} 0 & -\tan \frac{\alpha}{2} \\ \tan \frac{\alpha}{2} & 0 \end{bmatrix} \right) \begin{bmatrix} \cos \alpha & -\sin \alpha \\ \sin \alpha & \cos \alpha \end{bmatrix}$
$= \begin{bmatrix} 1 & \tan \frac{\alpha}{2} \\ -\tan \frac{\alpha}{2} & 1 \end{bmatrix} \begin{bmatrix} \cos \alpha & -\sin \alpha \\ \sin \alpha & \cos \alpha \end{bmatrix}$
$= \begin{bmatrix} \cos \alpha + \sin \alpha \tan \frac{\alpha}{2} & -\sin \alpha + \cos \alpha \tan \frac{\alpha}{2} \\ -\cos \alpha \tan \frac{\alpha}{2} + \sin \alpha & \sin \alpha \tan \frac{\alpha}{2} + \cos \alpha \end{bmatrix}$
Using the identities $\cos \alpha = \frac{1-\tan^2 \frac{\alpha}{2}}{1+\tan^2 \frac{\alpha}{2}}$ and $\sin \alpha = \frac{2\tan \frac{\alpha}{2}}{1+\tan^2 \frac{\alpha}{2}}$,let $t = \tan \frac{\alpha}{2}$.
The matrix becomes $\begin{bmatrix} \frac{1-t^2}{1+t^2} + \frac{2t^2}{1+t^2} & \frac{-2t}{1+t^2} + \frac{t(1-t^2)}{1+t^2} \\ \frac{-t(1-t^2)}{1+t^2} + \frac{2t}{1+t^2} & \frac{2t^2}{1+t^2} + \frac{1-t^2}{1+t^2} \end{bmatrix} = \begin{bmatrix} 1 & -t \\ t & 1 \end{bmatrix} = \begin{bmatrix} 1 & -\tan \frac{\alpha}{2} \\ \tan \frac{\alpha}{2} & 1 \end{bmatrix} \quad \dots (2)$
From $(1)$ and $(2)$,$L.H.S. = R.H.S.$

Explore More

Similar Questions

If $P$ and $Q$ are two non-zero square matrices of the same order such that the product $PQ = 0$,then ........

If $A=\left[\begin{array}{ccc}1 & 1 & 3 \\ 5 & 2 & 6 \\ -2 & -1 & -3\end{array}\right]$,then $A+A^3+A^4+A^5+3 I=$

If $\left\{ \begin{bmatrix} 3 & 1 & 2 \\ 8 & 9 & 5 \\ 1 & 1 & 3 \end{bmatrix} \begin{bmatrix} 1 & 3 & 3 \\ 3 & 2 & 7 \\ 3 & 7 & 9 \end{bmatrix} \begin{bmatrix} 3 & 8 & 1 \\ 1 & 9 & 1 \\ 2 & 5 & 3 \end{bmatrix} \right\}^2 = \begin{bmatrix} a_1 & a_2 & a_3 \\ b_1 & b_2 & b_3 \\ c_1 & c_2 & c_3 \end{bmatrix}$,then the value of $|a_2 - b_1| + |a_3 - c_1| + |b_3 - c_2|$ is

Let $A = \left| \begin{array}{cc} 2 & e^{i \pi} \\ -1 & i^{2012} \end{array} \right|$,$C = \left. \frac{d}{dx} \left( \frac{1}{x} \right) \right|_{x=1}$,and $D = \int_{e^2}^{1} \frac{dx}{x}$. If the sum of two roots of the equation $Ax^3 + Bx^2 + Cx - D = 0$ is equal to zero,then $B$ is equal to:

Let $A = \begin{bmatrix} 1+i & 1 \\ -i & 0 \end{bmatrix}$ where $i = \sqrt{-1}$. Then,the number of elements in the set $\{n \in \{1, 2, \ldots, 100\} : A^n = A\}$ is

Vedclass Products

For Students

Vedclass Test Series

Mock tests in real JEE/NEET style with performance analysis. 5-day free trial.

Start Free Trial
For Teachers

Exam Paper Generator

Generate Set A/B/C/D exam papers from 7.5L+ questions in 2 minutes. 3 chapters free.

Try Free
For Institutes

Online Exam Module

Live online exams with unlimited students, 360° analytics & white-label branding.

See Demo