If $y=y(x)$ satisfies $\left(\frac{2+\sin x}{1+y}\right) \frac{dy}{dx} = -\cos x$ such that $y(0)=2$,then $y\left(\frac{\pi}{2}\right)$ is equal to

  • A
    $4$
  • B
    $3$
  • C
    $2$
  • D
    $1$

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