If chi stands for the magnetic susceptibility | vedclass

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(B) The relationship between magnetic susceptibility $\chi$ and relative permeability $\mu_r$ is given by $\chi = \mu_r - 1$. Also, the absolute perme

Vedclass · Accepted Answer

For a paramagnetic substance: $\chi > 0, \mu > \mu_0$

Vedclass · Answer

(B) The relationship between magnetic susceptibility $\chi$ and relative permeability $\mu_r$ is given by $\chi = \mu_r - 1$. Also, the absolute permeability $\mu$ is related to relative permeability by $\mu = \mu_r \mu_0$. For a paramagnetic substance, $\chi$ is small and positive $(\chi > 0)$, which implies $\mu_r > 1$, and therefore $\mu > \mu_0$. For a diamagnetic substance, $\chi$ is small and negative $(\chi For a ferromagnetic substance, $\chi$ is very large and positive $(\chi \gg 1)$, which implies $\mu_r \gg 1$, and therefore $\mu \gg \mu_0$. Comparing these with the given options, both $(b)$ and $(d)$ are scientifically correct statements.

If $\chi$ stands for the magnetic susceptibility of a substance, $\mu$ for its magnetic permeability, and $\mu_0$ for the permeability of free space, then which of the following is correct?

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