If $f: R \to R$ is defined by $f(x) = (x + 1)^2$ and $g: R \to R$ is defined by $g(x) = x^2 + 1$,then $(fog)(-3)$ equals:

If $f$ is a function defined on $(0, 1)$ by $f(x) = \min \{x - [x], -x - [-x]\}$,then $(f \circ f \circ f \circ f)(x)$ is equal to ($[.]$ denotes the greatest integer function).

If $f:R \to R$ and $g:R \to R$ are given by $f(x) = |x|$ and $g(x) = |x|$ for each $x \in R$,then $\{ x \in R : g(f(x)) \le f(g(x)) \} = $

Let $f: R - \left\{-\frac{1}{2}\right\} \rightarrow R$ be defined by $f(x) = \frac{x-2}{2x+1}$. If $\alpha$ and $\beta$ satisfy the equation $f(f(x)) = -x$,then $4(\alpha^2 + \beta^2) = $

Let $N$ denote the set of all natural numbers,and $Z$ denote the set of all integers. Consider the functions $f: N \rightarrow Z$ and $g: Z \rightarrow N$ defined by $f(n) = \begin{cases} (n+1)/2 & \text{if } n \text{ is odd} \\ (4-n)/2 & \text{if } n \text{ is even} \end{cases}$ and $g(n) = \begin{cases} 3+2n & \text{if } n \geq 0 \\ -2n & \text{if } n < 0 \end{cases}$. Define $(g \circ f)(n) = g(f(n))$ for all $n \in N$,and $(f \circ g)(n) = f(g(n))$ for all $n \in Z$. Then which of the following statements is (are) True?

Let $Q$ be the set of all rational numbers in $[0,1]$ and $f:[0,1] \rightarrow [0,1]$ be defined by $f(x) = \begin{cases} x & \text{for } x \in Q \\ 1-x & \text{for } x \notin Q \end{cases}$. Then, the set $S = \{x \in [0,1] : (f \circ f)(x) = x\}$ is equal to