Let $A, B, C$ and $D$ be four nonempty sets. The contrapositive of 'if $A \subseteq B$ and $B \subseteq D$ then $A \subseteq C$' is

  • A
    If $A \nsubseteq C$,then $A \nsubseteq B$ or $B \nsubseteq D$
  • B
    If $A \subset C$,then $A \subseteq B$ and $B \subseteq D$
  • C
    If $A \subseteq C$,then $A \subseteq B$ and $B \subseteq D$
  • D
    If $A \subseteq C$,then $B \subset A$ or $D \subset B$

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The correct logical equivalences from the following are: $(I)$ $p \to (q \to r) \equiv (p \land q) \to r$ $(II)$ $(p \to q) \to r \equiv p \to (q \lor r)$ $(III)$ $(p \to q) \to r \equiv (p \to r) \land (\sim q \to r)$ $(IV)$ $p \to (q \to r) \equiv q \to (p \to r)$

If $\sim p \to q$ is false and $q \leftrightarrow r$ is false, then the truth value of $(p, q, r)$ is...

$p :$ Suman is brilliant.
$q :$ Suman is rich.
$r :$ Suman is honest.
How can the negation of the statement "Suman is rich if and only if Suman is brilliant and dishonest" be represented?

The logical expression $p \wedge (\sim p \vee \sim q) =$ ?

Which of the following statements is true?

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