Why is it scientifically correct to say that | vedclass

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(C) In humans,the sex of the baby is determined by the sex chromosomes. Females are homogametic,possessing $XX$ chromosomes,and produce only one type

Vedclass · Accepted Answer

Human female is $XX$,whereas male is $XY$; $50\%$ of sperms carry the $X$ chromosome while the other $50\%$ carry the $Y$ chromosome

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(C) In humans,the sex of the baby is determined by the sex chromosomes. Females are homogametic,possessing $XX$ chromosomes,and produce only one type of gamete (ovum) containing an $X$ chromosome. Males are heterogametic,possessing $XY$ chromosomes,and produce two types of sperms: $50\%$ containing an $X$ chromosome and $50\%$ containing a $Y$ chromosome. When an $X$-carrying sperm fertilizes the ovum,the zygote becomes $XX$ (female). When a $Y$-carrying sperm fertilizes the ovum,the zygote becomes $XY$ (male). Therefore,the sex of the baby is determined by the type of sperm provided by the father.

Why is it scientifically correct to say that the sex of the baby is determined by the father and not by the mother?

Similar Questions

Which animal exhibits sex determination through the haplo-diploid mechanism?

When does sex determination occur in humans?

The sex of a human child is determined by:

$A$ man can inherit his $X$-chromosome from his

The average ratio of men and women in the human population is:

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