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(B) The statement $p$ $\rightarrow (q$ $\rightarrow p)$ is a tautology because it is only false if $p$ is true and $(q \rightarrow p)$ is false,which

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$p \rightarrow (p \vee q)$

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(B) The statement $p$ $\rightarrow (q$ $\rightarrow p)$ is a tautology because it is only false if $p$ is true and $(q \rightarrow p)$ is false,which is impossible since $p$ is true.Now,let us evaluate $p \rightarrow (p \vee q)$.This statement is false only if $p$ is true and $(p \vee q)$ is false.If $p$ is true,then $(p \vee q)$ must be true (by the definition of disjunction).Thus,$p \rightarrow (p \vee q)$ is also a tautology.Since both statements are tautologies,they are logically equivalent.Therefore,$p$ $\rightarrow (q$ $\rightarrow p) \equiv p$ $\rightarrow (p \vee q)$.

The statement $p$ $\rightarrow (q$ $\rightarrow p)$ is equivalent to which of the following?

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