If $A$ and $B$ are any two events,then $P(A \cup B) = \dots$

If $A$ and $B$ are mutually exclusive events,then the value of $P(A \cup B)$ is

If $A$ and $B$ are two independent events,then the probability of occurrence of at least one of $A$ and $B$ is given by $1 - P(A') P(B')$. Is this statement true or false?

If $A$ and $B$ are two independent events,then $P(A \cup B) = $

If the probability of a horse $A$ winning a race is $1/4$ and the probability of a horse $B$ winning the same race is $1/5$,then the probability that either of them will win the race is (in $/20$)

$A$ and $B$ are events such that $P(A)=0.42$,$P(B)=0.48$ and $P(A \cap B)=0.16$. Determine $P(A \cup B)$.