If $A$ and $B$ are two independent events,then the probability of occurrence of at least one of $A$ and $B$ is given by $1 - P(A') P(B')$. Is this statement true or false?

Three critics review a book. For the three critics,the odds in favor of the book are $2:5$,$3:4$,and $4:3$ respectively. The probability that the majority is in favor of the book is given by

The two events $A$ and $B$ have probabilities $0.25$ and $0.50$ respectively. The probability that both $A$ and $B$ occur simultaneously is $0.14$. Then the probability that neither $A$ nor $B$ occurs is

Find the favorable odds in favor of drawing a king from a well-shuffled deck of $52$ cards.

One card is drawn randomly from a pack of $52$ cards. The probability that it is a king or a spade is:

If $A$ and $B$ are two events of a random experiment such that $P(A \cup B) = 0.65$ and $P(A \cap B) = 0.15$,then $P(\overline{A}) + P(\overline{B}) = $