For a binomial variate $X \sim B(n, p)$,the difference between the mean and variance is $1$ and the difference between their squares is $11$. If the probability $P(X=2) = m\left(\frac{5}{6}\right)^n$ and $n=36$,then $m : n =$

  • A
    $6 : 5$
  • B
    $7 : 10$
  • C
    $36 : 1$
  • D
    $42 : 25$

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