For two events A and B,P(B) neq 0 and P(A mid | vedclass

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(B) By the definition of conditional probability,$P(A \mid B) = \frac{P(A \cap B)}{P(B)}$.Given $P(A \mid B) = 1$,we have $\frac{P(A \cap B)}{P(B)} =

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$B \subset A$

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(B) By the definition of conditional probability,$P(A \mid B) = \frac{P(A \cap B)}{P(B)}$.Given $P(A \mid B) = 1$,we have $\frac{P(A \cap B)}{P(B)} = 1$,which implies $P(A \cap B) = P(B)$.Since $A \cap B$ is a subset of $B$ $(A \cap B \subseteq B)$,and their probabilities are equal,it follows that all outcomes in $B$ must be contained within $A$.Therefore,$B \subseteq A$ (or $B \subset A$ in the context of the given options).

For two events $A$ and $B$,$P(B) \neq 0$ and $P(A \mid B) = 1$,then which of the following is true?

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