If f(1)=1 and f^{prime}(1)=3,then the derivat | vedclass

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(D) Let $y = f(f(f(x))) + (f(x))^2$. Applying the chain rule,the derivative is: $\frac{dy}{dx} = f^{\prime}(f(f(x))) \cdot f^{\prime}(f(x)) \cdot f^{\

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$33$

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(D) Let $y = f(f(f(x))) + (f(x))^2$. Applying the chain rule,the derivative is: $\frac{dy}{dx} = f^{\prime}(f(f(x))) \cdot f^{\prime}(f(x)) \cdot f^{\prime}(x) + 2f(x)f^{\prime}(x)$. At $x = 1$,we have $f(1) = 1$ and $f^{\prime}(1) = 3$. Substituting these values: $f(f(1)) = f(1) = 1$. $f(f(f(1))) = f(1) = 1$. Therefore,$\left. \frac{dy}{dx} \right|_{x=1} = f^{\prime}(f(f(1))) \cdot f^{\prime}(f(1)) \cdot f^{\prime}(1) + 2f(1)f^{\prime}(1)$. $= f^{\prime}(1) \cdot f^{\prime}(1) \cdot f^{\prime}(1) + 2(1)(3)$. $= 3 \cdot 3 \cdot 3 + 6 = 27 + 6 = 33$.

If $f(1)=1$ and $f^{\prime}(1)=3$,then the derivative of $f(f(f(x)))+(f(x))^2$ at $x=1$ is

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