If $f(x)=x^2+1$ and $g(x)=\frac{1}{x}$,then the value of $f(g(g(f(x))))$ at $x=1$ is

$f: R \rightarrow R$ and $g:[0, \infty) \rightarrow R$ are defined by $f(x)=x^2$ and $g(x)=\sqrt{x}$. Which one of the following is not true?

Let $f: A \rightarrow B$ and $g: B \rightarrow C$ be any two functions and $g \circ f: A \rightarrow C$ is one-one,then

Let $S, T, U$ be three non-void sets and $f: S \rightarrow T, g: T \rightarrow U$ be functions such that $g \circ f: S \rightarrow U$ is surjective. Then,

If $f(x)=3x-2$ and $g(x)=x^2$,then $f \circ g(x) = \_\_\_\_$

Let $f(x)=3+2x$ and $g_n(x)=(f \circ f \circ f \circ \dots \text{n times})(x)$. For all $n \in N$,if all the lines $y=g_n(x)$ pass through a fixed point $(\alpha, \beta)$,then $\alpha+\beta=$