If $X$ and $Y$ are two non-empty sets where $f: X \to Y$ is a function defined such that $f(C) = \{f(x) : x \in C\}$ for $C \subseteq X$ and $f^{-1}(D) = \{x : f(x) \in D\}$ for $D \subseteq Y$,then for any $A \subseteq X$ and $B \subseteq Y$,which of the following is true?

  • A
    $f^{-1}(f(A)) = A$
  • B
    $f^{-1}(f(A)) = A$ only if $f$ is surjective
  • C
    $f(f^{-1}(B)) = B$ only if $B \subseteq f(X)$
  • D
    $f(f^{-1}(B)) = B$

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| Column $I$ | Column $II$ |
| :--- | :--- |
| $A$. $f$ is one-one and onto, if | $1$. $A = R^{+}, B = R$ |
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| $D$. $f$ is neither one-one nor onto, if | $4$. $A = B = R^{+}$ |

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