Let $A = \{1, 2, 3, 4\}$,$B = \{1, 5, 9, 11, 15, 16\}$ and $f = \{(1, 5), (2, 9), (3, 1), (4, 5), (2, 11)\}$. Is $f$ a function from $A$ to $B$? Justify your answer.

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(B) relation $f$ from a set $A$ to a set $B$ is a function if every element of $A$ has one and only one image in $B$.
Given $f = \{(1, 5), (2, 9), (3, 1), (4, 5), (2, 11)\}$.
Here,the element $2 \in A$ is associated with two different images in $B$,which are $9$ and $11$ (i.e.,$f(2) = 9$ and $f(2) = 11$).
Since an element of the domain cannot have more than one image in the codomain,$f$ is not a function.

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