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(B) We evaluate the expression $(A \setminus B) \setminus C$: By definition of set difference, $A \setminus B = A \cap B'$. Thus, $(A \setminus B) \se

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$(A \setminus B) \setminus C = A \setminus (B \cup C)$

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(B) We evaluate the expression $(A \setminus B) \setminus C$: By definition of set difference, $A \setminus B = A \cap B'$. Thus, $(A \setminus B) \setminus C = (A \cap B') \cap C'$. Using the associative property of intersection, we get $A \cap (B' \cap C')$. By De Morgan's Law, $B' \cap C' = (B \cup C)'$. Therefore, $(A \setminus B) \setminus C = A \cap (B \cup C)' = A \setminus (B \cup C)$. Hence, the statement in option $B$ is valid.

Let $A, B, C$ be subsets of a set $X$. Which of the following set-theoretic statements is valid?

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