Two magnets of equal mass are joined at right angles to each other as shown. Magnet $1$ has a magnetic moment $3$ times that of magnet $2$. This arrangement is pivoted so that it is free to rotate in the horizontal plane. In equilibrium,what angle will magnet $1$ subtend with the magnetic meridian?

  • A
    $\tan^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)$
  • B
    $\tan^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{3}\right)$
  • C
    $\tan^{-1}(1)$
  • D
    $0^{\circ}$

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Similar Questions

Match List-$I$ with List-$II$.
List-$I$List-$II$
$(A)$ Magnetic induction$(I)$ $\text{Ampere meter}^2$
$(B)$ Magnetic intensity$(II)$ $\text{Weber}$
$(C)$ Magnetic flux$(III)$ $\text{Gauss}$
$(D)$ Magnetic moment$(IV)$ $\text{Ampere/meter}$

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Two short magnets of magnetic moment $1000 \, A m^2$ are placed as shown at the corners of a square of side $10 \, cm$. The net magnetic induction at $P$ is....$T$

Assertion: We cannot think of a magnetic field configuration with three poles.
Reason: $A$ bar magnet does exert a torque on itself due to its own field.

Write the differences between electrostatics and magnetics.

Answer the following questions:
$(a)$ Why does a paramagnetic sample display greater magnetisation (for the same magnetising field) when cooled?
$(b)$ Why is diamagnetism, in contrast, almost independent of temperature?
$(c)$ If a toroid uses bismuth for its core, will the field in the core be (slightly) greater or (slightly) less than when the core is empty?
$(d)$ Is the permeability of a ferromagnetic material independent of the magnetic field? If not, is it more for lower or higher fields?
$(e)$ Magnetic field lines are always nearly normal to the surface of a ferromagnet at every point. (This fact is analogous to the static electric field lines being normal to the surface of a conductor at every point.) Why?
$(f)$ Would the maximum possible magnetisation of a paramagnetic sample be of the same order of magnitude as the magnetisation of a ferromagnet?

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