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Let $f(x)$ be positive for all real $x$. If $I_1 = \int_{1-h}^{h} x f(x(1-x)) dx$ and $I_2 = \int_{1-h}^{h} f(x(1-x)) dx$,where $(2h-1) > 0$,then $\frac{I_1}{I_2}$ is

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