If $f: R \rightarrow R$ is defined by $f(x)=e^{x}$ and $g: R \rightarrow R$ is defined by $g(x)=x^{2}$, then the mapping $(g \circ f): R \rightarrow R$ is defined by $(g \circ f)(x) = g(f(x))$ for all $x \in R$. Which of the following is true?

  • A
    $g \circ f$ is bijective but $f$ is not injective
  • B
    $g \circ f$ is injective and $g$ is injective
  • C
    $g \circ f$ is injective but $g$ is not bijective
  • D
    $g \circ f$ is surjective and $g$ is surjective

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