$(p \wedge r) \Leftrightarrow (p \wedge (\sim q))$ is equivalent to $(\sim p)$ when $r$ is.

  • A
    $p$
  • B
    $\sim p$
  • C
    $q$
  • D
    $\sim q$

Explore More

Similar Questions

For each of the following statements,determine whether an inclusive "Or" or exclusive "Or" is used. Give reasons for your answer.
To enter a country,you need a passport or a voter registration card.

Negation of "Paris is in France and London is in England" is

Negation of the inverse of the following statement pattern $(p \wedge q) \rightarrow (p \vee \sim q)$ is

The inverse of the statement pattern $(p \vee q) \rightarrow (p \wedge q)$ is

The number of values of $r \in \{p, q, \sim p, \sim q\}$ for which $((p \wedge q)$ $\Rightarrow (r \vee q)) \wedge ((p \wedge r)$ $\Rightarrow q)$ is a tautology,is:

Vedclass Products

For Students

Vedclass Test Series

Mock tests in real JEE/NEET style with performance analysis. 5-day free trial.

Start Free Trial
For Teachers

Exam Paper Generator

Generate Set A/B/C/D exam papers from 7.5L+ questions in 2 minutes. 3 chapters free.

Try Free
For Institutes

Online Exam Module

Live online exams with unlimited students, 360° analytics & white-label branding.

See Demo